Going back to Robert Kaplan's book The Nothing That Is: A Natural History of Zero, we already know that the earliest form of writing were a form of accounting. The Hittites used cuneiforms in Babylonian because it was the diplomatic language of the time. Babylonian was a Semitic language. The Hittite language was an Indo-European language. Was grammar absent from cuneiform script? If there was a grammar, did sentence construction differ between spoken form and written form. A documented disjunct between both appears in early Japanese writing, where Chinese would be used. It was only in the 8th century that a typically Japanese script would appear with the Kojiki.
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